2024年长春中考英语试卷及答案

英语，是一种属于印欧语系-日耳曼语族下的语言。那么关于2024年长春中考英语试卷怎么做呢?以下是小编整理的一些2024年长春中考英语试卷及答案，仅供参考。

2024年长春中考英语试卷及答案

本试卷包括五道大题，共8页。满分为90分，考试时间为100分钟。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

注意事项：

1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码准确粘贴在条形码区域内。

2. 答题时，考生务必按照考试要求在答题卡上的指定区域内作答，在草稿纸、试卷上答题无效。

一、基础知识(共10分)

Ⅰ. 单项选择(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)

从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。

1. My birthday ________ is a toy panda. It’s from my grandma.

A. trip B. month C. gift D. color

2. The Qinghai Lake is ________ lake in China. It is in Qinghai  Province.

A. large B. larger C. largest D. the largest

3. Lili ________ be at home. She has gone to the farm to pick apples.

A. mustn’t B. can’t C. must D. can

4. —Mom, could I ________ the TV? I want to watch the news about space.

—Of course. And don’t sit too close.

A. turn on B. turn off C. put on D. put off

5. Look! The students ________ an art class in the park.

A. have B. were having C. had D. are having

6. —________ are these sports socks?

—10 yuan for 3 pairs.

A. How many B. How much C. How often D. How long

7. —There ________ many ancient Chinese poems in this book. Which one do  you like best?

—Climbing a Tower by Wang Zhihuan.

A. are B. is C. were D. was

8. As a science lover, I hope I can invent a bike ________ can fly in the  sky.

A. where B. when C. which D. who

9. ________ helpful the speech is! It tells us to use the Internet  safely.

A. What B. What a C. How D. What an

10. —The Mid-Autumn Festival is coming. I wonder ________.

—In your uncle’s home.

A. where we will celebrate it B. when we will celebrate it

C. where will we celebrate it D. when will we celebrate it

二、交际运用(共5分)

根据对话内容，运用下面所给的句子选项补全对话。选项中有一项是多余的。

(Lei Lei and Han Lu are talking in the English corner.)

Han Lu: Hi, Lei Lei. You look excited. ___11___

Lei Lei: Yes. We will have an International Summer Camp.

Han Lu: Really? It’s cool.

Lei Lei: Guess what? We will work for the camp.

Han Lu: Wow, wonderful! ___12___

Lei Lei: We can introduce something special about our hometown.

Han Lu: That’s easy. Changbai Mountain and the Songhua River are my  favorites.

Lei Lei: I have different ideas. ___13___

Han Lu: Haha! Very funny. I know you will say that.

Lei Lei: Don’t forget Changchun is also an ice and snow city.

Han Lu: ___14___ Winter sports in Jilin are famous around the world.

Lei Lei: That’s for sure. I hope we can tell the foreign friends more about  our hometown.

Han Lu: ___15___

Lei Lei: Oh! It’s time for class. Let’s go.

Han Lu: OK.

A. Me, too.

B. You’re right.

C. What can we do then?

D. Is there any good news?

E. What’s your favorite food?

F. My favorites are tieguodun and guobaorou.

三、阅读(共45分)

Ⅲ. 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)

阅读短文，掌握其大意，然后从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。

When my friend suggested that we join the new Tai Chi (太极拳) Club, I thought  he was ___16___. I always believed tai chi was for old people. However, after  the first class, I ___17___ that I was wrong. It was amazing. Tai chi led to a  big ___18___ both in my body and mind.

I still remember my first few tai chi classes. The basic skill I learned  was keeping a balance (平衡). An action was called “golden rooster (公鸡) standing  on one leg”. Following the instructions, I tried to ___19___ on one leg. It  seemed that it was not a hard one, but I still ___20___ many times. Soon, I felt  bored and ___21___ from practicing over and over again. I started to ___22___  myself. Maybe I was really ___23___ in this kind of exercise. Just then, my  coach taught me how to relax myself. Step by step, I made ___24___. Later, I was  able to do more difficult actions and feel peace of mind as well. My love for  tai chi became ___25___. I even wanted to look into the ancient Chinese culture  behind tai chi.

I discovered tai chi is deeply from Chinese yin and yang. The practice of  it helps to keep a balance through ___26___: left and right, up and ___27___,  breathing in and breathing out... Finally, tai chi brings about a state of body  balance and ___28___ peace.

Now I can honestly say it helps me become much ___29___. I sleep better at  night and I am more active during the day. More importantly, practicing tai chi  has made me better ___30___ the Chinese culture. I am sure I will continue to  practice tai chi and enjoy the advantages it has brought me.

16. A. joking B. waiting C. reading D. explaining

17. A. forgot B. dreamt C. required D. realized

18. A. decision B. problem C. change D. love

19. A. sit B. stand C. lie D. jump

20. A. feared B. wished C. failed D. received

21. A. lazy B. tired C. afraid D. hungry

22. A. thank B. praise C. doubt D. control

23. A. right B. weak C. strict D. interested

24. A. friends B. mistakes C. noise D. progress

25. A. strong B. quiet C. strange D. important

26. A. habits B. chances C. abilities D. opposites

27. A. on B. down C. off D. away

28. A. world B. mind C. life D. thought

29. A. safer B. heavier C. prouder D. healthier

30. A. understand B. teach C. translate D. encourage

Ⅳ. 阅读理解(共25小题;31～50题，每小题1分;51～55题，每小题2分，满分30分)

(A)

根据图示内容，选择最佳答案。

31________ is the closest subway station to the museum.

A. King Square B. Nelson Street C. Embankment D. Charing Cross

32. Which of the following is RIGHT?

A. This is a tea culture museum. B. The museum is open at 9 a.m.

C. The museum is free for the public. D. You can call the museum at  723-1182.

33. The sign means you can ________ here.

A. have a meal B. enjoy photos C. ask for information D. buy a present

34. We can find Museum Shop ________.

A. in East Garden B. next to Dining Space

C. across from Lost & Found D. between Ancient Arts and Modern Arts

35. The text is probably taken from ________.

A. a visitor guide B. a shopping list C. a street map D. a travel diary

(B)

①Is the summer vacation long enough to turn life for the better? Every  person has his own talents and interests. Find something you care about, and you  will see the difference.

②Organize a clean-up program. People often throw litter in the place where  there is already litter. This leaves the community in a mess. The environment  will become better if someone volunteers to help. You could pick up the rubbish  with your friends once a week in your neighborhood. You could also help take  care of the plants every few days. Surely a clean and tidy neighborhood will be  worth the work.

③Show your love to the old. Our city has some old people’s homes. Without  children around them, the old people there might feel lonely once in a while.  Maybe they need your help. In fact, you can do a lot for them. For example, you  can talk with them or play games with them. Listening to them carefully is also  a good idea. Some old people can’t see clearly and they would like you to read  to them. No matter what small things you do, you can make them feel loved.

④Set up a reading project with your friends. Share your favorite books with  them. Besides, you may read aloud to each other and talk about what you read.  Either a book or an article can spark a lively discussion and your further  thinking. The process often challenges more people to take action. The project  is also a good way to welcome newcomers. At the same time, you may find new  friends with similar hobbies.

⑤A two-month summer vacation isn’t that long, but it’s enough to make a  difference.

根据短文内容，选择最佳答案。

36. How often could you pick up the rubbish according to the passage?

A. Once a week. B. Every few weeks. C. Once a month. D. Every few  months.

37. Why do you need to read to some old people at the old people’s  homes?

A. Because you can think further. B. Because you are good at reading.

C. Because they can’t see clearly. D. Because they are away from their  homes.

38. What does the underlined word “spark” in Paragraph 4 probably mean?

A. Finish. B. Start. C. Increase. D. Separate.

39. Which is the right structure (结构) of the passage?

(①=Paragraph 1 ②=Paragraph 2,…)

40. What is the passage mainly about?

A. The people with different interests. B. The greatest time to make a  difference.

C. The reasons for a different summer vacation. D. The ways of making a  summer vacation different.

(C)

The world’s best sportsmen get together for the Olympic Games every four  years. The 2024 Olympic Games will take place in Paris, France. For the first  time, people will watch breaking (霹雳舞) as a new event at the Olympics.

Breaking is also called break dancing. The high-energy, skillful dance  includes moves such as Top Rock, Footwork, Go Down, Freeze and so on. The  dancers need to think and show the moves of the hands and feet quickly.

Break dance battles (斗舞) are a common way to find out who is the best  dancer. In the 1970s in New York City, fighting with others among young people  became more and more serious. Some of them began to deal with the problem  through dance instead. Just then, the dance style first showed up on the  streets. Today people still “battle” in this way. One dancer will show off his  moves, and then the next will continue to compete... The best dancer will be  picked out finally.

Why does breaking become an Olympic event? If a sport is added to the  Olympics, it must be widely practiced by men in at least 75 countries on four  continents (洲) and by women in no fewer than 40 countries on three continents.  Breaking meets this standard. Also, the planners’ goal is to make the Olympics  more interesting to young people.

“Breaking has been accepted as a sport. I really feel proud,” said Xiaoyu,  one breakdancer. “And for the Olympics, it will get more attention from young  people who may not follow some of the traditional sports.”

根据短文内容，判断句子正(T)、误(F)。

41. Footwork is one of the moves of breaking.

42. Breaking first showed up on the streets in Paris in the 1970s.

43. To be an Olympic event, a sport must be practiced by women in 75  countries.

44. Xiaoyu really feels proud that breaking has been accepted as a  sport.

45. The writer mainly introduces the history of the Olympics in the  passage.

(D)

Can you imagine what the human body in the future will be like? Our class  had a discussion about it. Tiantian, an AI (artificial intelligence人工智能) robot,  also joined us. Here are our guesses.

___46___ Humans are now ten centimeters (厘米) taller than 150 years ago. So,  in the future, people will probably be even taller. Why? Because most of us  today have much better food than those in the past.

You must say that people will be stronger according to the first guess.  ___47___ With the development of science and technology, we won’t have much  physical work to do. If people get used to this kind of lifestyle, we will  probably lose most of our muscles (肌肉).

Next, let’s come to our hands and feet. We are already using our feet less,  and our hands more. ___48___ At the same time, our fingers and our eyes will  both get better because they’ll have to do more work together.

Here comes the most interesting one—it’s very possible that people will  have four toes (脚趾), not five. The little toe really isn’t needed anymore.  ___49___ Let’s wait and see.

Last but not least—people won’t have as much hair on their bodies as now,  since we don’t need it to keep ourselves warm.

What do you think of our guesses? ___50___ With the rise of AI, will we  lose the ability of thinking independently?

阅读短文，把A～E五个句子填入文中空缺处，使短文内容完整。

A. But you’re wrong.

B. Will all these things happen?

C. Let’s start with people’s height.

D. Will it still be there in the future?

E. So we can expect our legs will get shorter and our feet smaller.

(E)

Have you ever read Little Women by US writer Louisa May Alcott? The classic  has been changed into plays, films and television programs many times because of  its popularity since it came out in 1868. It tells a story of a mother raising  her four daughters, while their dad is away fighting a war. Meg, the eldest,  wants to live a better life very much. Jo, the second-born, wants nothing more  than to be a writer. Beth is a sweet girl who loves music and always brings joy  to others. The youngest daughter, Amy, dreams of being an artist. After reading  Little Women, I have a feeling of warmth and kindness from the family.

In the following scene, the girls talk about what they can buy with the  very little money they have. They feel hopeful about the future even though  their dreams may not come true.

根据短文内容，回答下列问题。

51. When did Little Women come out?

_______________________________________

52. Who is the third-born girl in the family?

_______________________________________

53. How do the girls feel even though their dreams may not come true?

_______________________________________

54. Why does Amy want to buy drawing pencils?

_______________________________________

55. What does Jo advise her sisters to do at last?

_______________________________________

四、语言运用(共10分)

Ⅴ. 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Westwood National Park is a very huge national park. It is well-known  ___56___ its fascinating scenes and many kinds of animals, especially bears. It  is one of my favorite ___57___ (place) to take photos.

I will never forget that afternoon. Birds flew over the ___58___ (peace)  lake. The mountains ___59___ (cover) with white snow. With the camera held to my  eye, I was recording the amazing picture. All of a sudden, I found two baby  bears far away running after each other ___60___ (happy). Sometimes they stopped  to look around; sometimes one rubbed (蹭) against the other’s back. They had a  lot of fun playing in ___61___ sun. At that moment, I completely lost myself in  the sweet environment. How I wished that time could stand still! I really hoped  ___62___ (catch) the warm scene with my camera and I did it. After a while, I  ___63___ (hear) a loud roar (吼叫) from the mother bear. The two baby bears stood  up quickly ___64___ ran back to the forest. I was so lucky that I could take  such a picture.

The photo always reminds ___65___ (I) that the real beauty is “nature” in  nature.

五、书面表达(共20分)

(A)

66. 新西兰某中学现招募志愿者，为其参加“汉语桥”(Chinese  Bridge)中文演讲比赛的选手进行线上辅导。假如你是李华，请根据下面要点和要求，用英语写一封不少于40词的自荐信。

要点：

(1)表达意愿;

(2)说明优势。

要求：要点齐全;表述通顺;简洁得体。

Dear Sir or Madam,

____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Yours,

Li Hua

(B)

67. 每个人都有自己的闪光点，请以“My Shining Point”为题，写一篇不少于80词的英语短文。

要求：

(1)讲述一个自己的故事;

(2)你的感悟;

(3)适当增加细节，行文连贯;

(4)文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和校名。

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2024年长春市初中学业水平考试

英语

本试卷包括五道大题，共8页。满分为90分，考试时间为100分钟。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

注意事项：

1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码准确粘贴在条形码区域内。

2. 答题时，考生务必按照考试要求在答题卡上的指定区域内作答，在草稿纸、试卷上答题无效。

一、基础知识(共10分)

Ⅰ. 单项选择(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)

从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。

【1题答案】

【答案】C

【2题答案】

【答案】D

【3题答案】

【答案】B

【4题答案】

【答案】A

【5题答案】

【答案】D

【6题答案】

【答案】B

【7题答案】

【答案】A

【8题答案】

【答案】C

【9题答案】

【答案】C

【10题答案】

【答案】A

二、交际运用(共5分)

【11~15题答案】

【答案】11. D 12. C 13. F 14. B 15. A

三、阅读(共45分)

Ⅲ. 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)

【16~30题答案】

【答案】16. A 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. A 26. D 27. B  28. B 29. D 30. A

Ⅳ. 阅读理解(共25小题;31～50题，每小题1分;51～55题，每小题2分，满分30分)

(A)

【31~35题答案】

【答案】31. B 32. D 33. C 34. C 35. A

(B)

【36~40题答案】

【答案】36. A 37. C 38. B 39. D 40. B

(C)

【41~45题答案】

【答案】41. T 42. F 43. F 44. T 45. F

(D)

【46~50题答案】

【答案】46. C 47. A 48. E 49. D 50. B

(E)

【51~55题答案】

【答案】51. In 1868. 52. Beth.

53. They feel hopeful about the future.

54. Because she really needs them.

55. Jo advises her sisters to buy what they need and work hard enough to  make it.

四、语言运用(共10分)

Ⅴ. 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)

【56~65题答案】

【答案】56. for

57. places 58. peaceful

59. were covered

60. happily

61. the 62. to catch

63. heard 64. and 65. me

五、书面表达(共20分)

(A)

【66题答案】

【答案】例文

Dear Sir or Madam,

I’m Li Hua and I’d like to be a volunteer to provide online tutoring for  the contestants in the Chinese speech contest I am good at Chinese and speech,  and I can talk freely with foreigners. Also, I’m quite outgoing and  warm-hearted. I believe that I’ll be qualified for this job.

Looking forward to your reply.

Yours,

Li Hua

(B)

【67题答案】

【答案】例文

My Shining Point

I meet many excellent people every day and at the same time I also find  myself really good. I can see the world with kind eyes. I think I don’t like to  complain. I find it important to have a positive attitude.

Last month, I was chosen to play a role in an English show. It was  difficult for me to memorize the lines in a short time. However, I regarded it  as a challenge, which was also a good chance to improve my English. So I made an  effort to practice. Finally, I made it and received high praise.

In fact it is my positive attitude that brings out the best in me all the  time.

中考英语时的技巧

问：中考英语时有什么技巧

答：1、听力部分

听力部分重在考察学生听力辨音以及对内容的理解。整体难度不大，属于容易得分的板块。

在做题之前，应利用间隙时间审题，根据题干预测即将听到的内容，做到心中有数;做题的时候，手中握笔，对关键信息点做简要记录，并通过对话的重音、语气等判断人物关系、说话态度以及个人喜恶等。如果有要点漏掉了，应果断舍弃，不要影响后面的答题。

2、单选部分

该板块主要是针对语法、词汇和交际用语的考查。常考考点为：动词的时态语态、固定搭配、词义辨析、不定代词、名词词义辨析、形容词、副词、连词、情态动词表示推测、宾语从句等。

对于语法，考生要认真去分析其中的逻辑，而不能一味地硬记硬背;词汇板块，重在平时积累;而交际用语板块，重点考察学生运用语言进行表达的能力。在平时学习的过程中，就要有意识地去归纳。例如，表感谢时，相应的答语有哪些;表达道歉，正确的回答方式有哪些，都要注重整理归纳。

3、完形填空

完形填空，除了考察基础知识的掌握和运用，还要求学生对整篇文章逻辑联系有基本的理解，能在具体的情景中辨析词义以及运用词组短语搭配。这是学生易失分的板块。

在做完形填空时，利用词性分析的方法是解题的重要原则。平时尤其要注重词汇的积累，牢固掌握形近单词的意思及同义近义词组的辨析，同时还需注意熟词生义的现象，了解词汇的用法以及在不同语境中的具体含义，避免词义混淆和概念模糊。

4、阅读理解

初中阶段，阅读理解的体材多为记叙文、应用说明文，议论文考察相对较少。题材多样，常考的多数讲述亲情、友情和励志故事等。该板块分值通常较大，是学生容易得分的。

而记叙文，通常是通过讲故事、描写人物事迹或寓言故事，得出一个结论或者阐明一个道理，体现积极向上的人生观，要把握文章大意。

在做题之前，学生需要了解设题的四种类型：细节判断题、推理判断题、词义猜测题和主旨大意题，并掌握各种题型的解题方法。

5、阅读理解填词

阅读理解填词是根据文章意思，填出文中所缺单词，使文章还原其本来面目。此题的难度要高于完形填空，往往也是学生感觉比较棘手的题目。不仅要在不完整的文段间判断文章大意，还要完成填空练习，兼顾单词的词性、词形和拼写等。

注重积累一意多词，并且也要用词性分析的方法来判断所填单词，此外，要特别注意词形。例如，一旦判断出该空所填为名词，就应立即考虑名词的单复数。若为动词，就要考虑时态语态，形容词副词要注意比较级等。

6、写作部分

写作是语言的输出，重在考查学生综合运用语言的能力。该板块在考前可以重点突破的。写作部分多以给材料作文的形式为主，用中文给出提示要点，内容多围绕学生的校园及学习生活展开。例如，倾诉学习烦恼、介绍(新来的)教师或同学、度假计划、旅游安排等，形式集中在通知、书信、E-mail，以及记叙文和议论文等方面。

初三英语复习技巧

一、初三英语怎么办——抓基础也要抓重点

初三时间紧张，既要上新课，还要总复习，现在新课应该还没上完，留给我们实际复习的时间不多了。所以，复习要抓重点要点考点。

等不及老师划重点的小伙伴们，先来本巨微英语中考英语四轮复习看看吧。

外表华丽，内容全面，讲解清楚详细，

所以基础薄弱的宝宝放心入。

必考点、基础点和超纲点详细划分，

只看必考点，帮你节省复习时间，高效复习。

二、初三英语怎么办——用真题检验复习成果

初三复习拼的不是谁半夜12点不睡，头悬梁锥刺股，而是谁能在考场上得高分。所以平时可以用真题来检验自己的复习成果哦。

Tips：如果想集中突破某一题型，中考英语巨微土豪金的题型板块也能帮你大忙哦，8大题型应有尽有，解题技巧步骤一个不少。

比如任务型阅读中的主旨大意题，没法直接在文中找到对应，那就在通读文章的基础上，重点关注首末段、首末句，之后再归纳总结就容易得多了。

三、初三英语怎么办——利用好每一分钟

不只要专注早读、晚自习、晚上回家后这种大块时间，课间、午睡前后、晚自习前这种零碎的十几二十分钟也不能浪费掉，一天加起来也有一两个小时呢。万一你就在这么短的时间里复习到了中考可能的考点呢。