17年成人高考英语试题
成人高考英语阅读题型对高中英语教与学兼具积极和消极的作用。下面是学习啦小编为你整理关于17年成人高考英语试题的内容，希望大家喜欢!
17年成人高考英语试题
第I卷
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 (共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What will the woman do today?
A. Visit a friend. B. Attend a lecture. C. Help her friend.
2. Where is the woman’s cell phone?
A. In her bag. B. In the dining hall. C. In the classroom.
3. What does the man find difficult?
A. Understanding the instructions.
B. Putting together the folding table.
C. Fixing a toy train.
4. When does the woman need the book?
A. On April 1st. B. On April 2nd. C. On April 3rd.
5. What does the man mean?
A. Most readers don’t agree with him.
B. The woman can’t convince him.
C. Few people read his article.
第二节(共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Where did the woman stay at night during the holiday?
A. In a tent. B. In a hotel. C. In a farmhouse.
7. What does the woman think of the people there?
A. They were interesting. B. They were friendly. C. They were honest.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Pocket money. B. Part-time jobs. C. The man’s parents.
9. How long does the man take care of his neighbor’s baby every Friday?
A. For two hours. B. For three hours. C. For four hours.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What relation is Cindy to Edward?
A. His former primary schoolmate.
B. His group member.
C. His teacher.
11. What can Edward do in the theater group?
A. Meet famous artists. B. Perform plays and musicals. C. See films.
12. Where are the speakers?
A. At school. B. In a play theater. C. Outside a cinema.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. When does the woman go to the restaurant?
A. In the early morning. B. In the middle of the morning. C. At noon.
14. What does the woman like most about the restaurant?
A. The quiet environment. B. The delicious food. C. The jazz music.
15. What does the man say about his favorite restaurant?
A. It’s newly opened and clean.
B. He thinks highly of the food.
C. A film actor eats there sometimes.
16. What does the man have for lunch?
A. Pancakes. B. Fish pie. C. Sausages.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What is “What to Do Today”?
A. A radio program. B. A social organization. C. A school team.
18. What’s the main purpose of the tree-planting activity?
A. To help poor blind children.
B. To gain tree-planting experience.
C. To raise money for a computer company.
19. How many trees do students and their parents want to plant today?
A. 30. B. 750. C. 1,500.
20. What should volunteers bring for the activity?
A. Hats. B. Thick gloves. C. Basic tools.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡该项涂黑。
A
No human has set foot on the moon since 1972. Now, after more than four decades of inactivity, interest in putting humans back on the Moon is finally heating up again. But who will get there first?
CHINA
On 14 December 2013，China successfully landed its Jade Rabbit rover(探测车) on the moon. It is now working on its next exploration mission. Named Chang’e 4，the mission is scheduled to touch down in the Aitken Basin near the end of 2018. If successful, it will be the first landing on the Moon’s far side.
RUSSIA
Russia plans a manned Moon landing in 2030. It is currently working on a project whose idea is that the landers will explore the south pole of the moon，exploring for resources such as minerals and water ice to be used to provide for a human outpost(前哨站).
INDIA
Following the success of its Chandrayaan-1 in 2008, India announced a follow-on mission. Chandrayaan-2 was meant to cooperate with Russia. But when the Russians failed to deliver the promised lander in 2013, India decided to go it alone. Chandrayaan-2 is about to be sent up in 2018.
USA
In December 2018, NASA plans to send up the Exploration Mission 1, an uncrewed test of their Orion astronaut capsule in which the craft will circle around the Moon before returning to Earth. All being well, a crewed capsule will follow in 2023. Should the mission prove a success, the astronauts will be the first humans to see the far side of the Moon with their own eyes since Apollo 17 in 1972.
21. What will China do in its next space mission?
A. Improve its Jade Rabbit rover.
B. Work with other countries.
C. Land Chang’e 4 on the moon.
D. Explore the south pole of the moon.
22. Why did India try to carry out its follow-on mission alone?
A. It couldn’t find a partner.
B. It didn’t get the lander as planned.
C. The Russians refused to work with India.
D. It planned to launch Chandrayaan 2 in advance.
23. Which country is interested in resources on the moon?
A. Russia. B. China. C. India. D. USA.
24. What can we know from the text?
A. Russia has built a human outpost on the moon.
B. China will be the first to see the far side of the moon.
C. USA will send a crewed capsule to the moon in the future.
D. Humans have kept active in exploring the moon since 1972.
B
Known as “The Man with the Golden Arm,” nearly every week for the past 60 years, James Harrison has donated blood plasma(血浆) from his right arm. The reasons can date back to a serious medical procedure.
“When I was 14, I had a chest operation,” recalls Harrison, who is now aged 78. “My father said I had received 13 units of blood and my life had been saved by unknown people. So I said when I’m old enough, I’ll become a blood donor.”
Soon after Harrison became a donor, doctors called him in. His blood, they said, could be the answer to a deadly problem.
“In Australia, up until about 1967, there were about thousands of babies dying each year because of the rhesus disease(恒河猴症).” explains Jemma Falkenmire, of the Australian Red Cross Blood Service.
Harrison was discovered to have an unusual antibody(抗体) in his blood and in the 1960s he worked with doctors to use the antibodies to develop an injection(注射剂) called Anti-D which can prevent this disease.
Harrison’s blood is precious. Every batch of Anti-D that has ever been made in Australia has come from Harrison’s blood. He and Anti-D are credited with saving the lives of more than 2 million babies, according to the Australian Red Cross blood service: That’s 2 million lives saved by one man’s blood.
Harrison is considered a national hero, and has won numerous awards. He has now donated his plasma more than 1,000 times, but no matter how many times he’s given blood there’s one thing that will never change: “I look at the ceiling or the nurses, maybe talk to them a bit, but never once have I watched the needle go in my arm. I can’t stand the sight of blood, and I can’t stand pain.” he says.
25. What was the main reason for Harrison’s becoming a blood donor?
A. He has a golden arm. B. He has precious blood plasma.
C. His father encouraged him to help others. D. Donated blood once made him survive.
26. Why is James’ blood more precious?
A. James has the Anti-D in his blood.
B. His blood is more useful in treating the rhesus disease.
C. James’ blood is the main source of Anti-D in Australia.
D. James has donated more plasma than other donators.
27. How does Harrison feel when donating his plasma?
A. Nervous. B. Relaxed. C. Anxious D. Excited.
C
In this day and age, it may seem like getting two people with different views together to discuss them is a recipe for disaster. Just think about what would happen if you sat down and had an open and honest conversation with someone with completely opposing views. Could it bring you closer together?
However, the Human Library Organization is counting on it.
At a Human Library, people volunteer to become “books” and make their experiences open and available. “Readers” are encouraged to ask them questions freely, and they’ll get honest answers in return. There’s no judgment, and no questions are off-limits.
You won’t find unpleasant comments, and you won’t lose faith in humanity. At the Human Library, you actually feel better about the world you live in. You might even make a new friend!
The human “books” consist of people who have been discriminated by society.” said Ronni Abergel, the Human Library Organization’s founder, who has set out to build a space for conversations that can challenge prejudices through dialogue. “The most pleasantly surprising thing about it is how close all the human books become to one another,” she said.
Human Libraries help to remind us there really is more that unites us than divides us. And as events now spread throughout 82 countries, with Human Libraries even set to launch soon in Pakistan and Jordan, you can tell that is a shared feeling.
“We can spend billions and billions on trying to build up homeland security and our safety, but real safety comes from having positive relations to other groups in your community,” said Abergel. “Real safety is not going to come from building walls. It’s going to come from reaching out and getting to know each other.”
28. What does the first paragraph imply?
A. Heated discussions are often carried out among people.
B. Open dialogue can’t always lead to close relation.
C. People with opposing views are not honest enough.
D. We tend to have open dialogues with people around us.
29. What will readers get at a Human Library?
A. A fair judgment. B. Unpleasant comments.
C. An available experience. D. Regaining confidence.
30.Which of the following can replace the underlined “launch” in Para. 6 in meaning?
A. Accelerate. B. Substitute.C. Succeed. D. Start.
31. What did Abergel advise people to do to get real safety?
A. Strengthen bonds between people.
B. Join other groups in the community.
C. Pull down walls between communities.
D. Spend less money on homeland security.
D
“Everybody is a genius. But if you judge a fish by its ability to climb a tree, it will live its whole life believing that it is stupid.”
-----Albert Einstein
If you have a kid with special needs in the school system, chances are you have come across that saying hanging on a classroom wall. My five-year-old daughter Syona has cerebral palsy(脑瘫) and itmeans, combined with her communication challenges and sight problems, that standard assessments (and by “standard”, I mean the ones used to assess kids with special needs ) aren’t always an accurate measure of her abilities.
By now you have probably heard about Chris Ulmer, the 26-year-old teacher in Jacksonville, Florida ,who starts his special education class by calling up each student individually to give them much admiration and a high-five. I couldn’t help but be reminded of Syona’s teacher and how she supports each kid in a very similar way. Ulmer recently shared a video of his teaching experience. “I have seen their confidence and self-worth increase rapidly,” he said . All I could think was: How lucky these students are to have such inspirational teachers.
Syona’s teacher has an attitude that can best be summarized in one word: awesome. Her teacher doesn’t focus on what can’t be done—she focuses on what can be done. Over the past several months, my husband Dilip and I have seen Syona’s confidence increase tenfold. She uses words she wouldn’t have thought of using before. She recently told me about her classmate’s trip to Ecuador and was very proud when I understood her on the first try.
I actually wonder what the influence would be if we did something similar to what Ulmer does with his students in our home. We’ve recently started our day by reminding each other of the good qualities we all possess. If we are reminded of our strengths on a regular basis, we will become increasingly confident about progress and success.
Ulmer’s reach as a teacher goes far beyond the walls of his classroom. In fact, he teaches all of us to take a moment and truly appreciate the strengths of an important person in our lives.
32. What does the underlined “it” in Line 5 refer to?
A. The cerebral palsy with Syona. B. The saying on a classroom wall.
C. The standard for kids with special needs. D. The accurate measure of Syona’s abilities.
33. What can we learn about Chris Ulmer?
A. He is Syona’s favorite teacher.
B. He helps increase his students’ confidence.
C. He uses videos to teach his students.
D. He asks his students to help each other.
34. Why did Syona feel very pleased in the third paragraph?
A. She has developed a positive attitude.
B. Her mother knew what she expressed.
C. Her progress was appreciated by her parents.
D. She had been to Ecuador with her classmate.
35.What change has taken place in the author’s family?
A. They invite Ulmer’s students to their home.
B. They visit Umer’s classroom regularly.
C. They feel grateful to people in their lives.
D. They give each other praise every day.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Are you actually sick when you have spring fever? Originally, yes. 36 But now people used it to mean a sudden increase of romantic feelings.
These days, we use “spring fever” to describe a restless feeling after the long, cold days of winter. 37 It is also a verb that means something happening or appearing quickly.
Imagine that you are resting in the chair when suddenly you see a mouse run across the floor. You spring into action! You jump from the chair and run after the mouse! 38 And it works! But when you tell your roommate that you caught a mouse in a trap, tears spring from her eyes. You feel badly, but she really should have told you about her pet mouse Charlie!
39 You say to her, “You can’t just spring that on me! I’ll need time to find another roommate!” But then you think that maybe it’s for the best. Every time you see her you feel guilty about Charlie. 40 She always expects you to buy her things: she wants you to spring for lunch, spring for movie tickets, and sometimes even spring for groceries.
So, when you spring for something, you pay for someone else.
A. Many people suffer a lot from it.
B. You roommate turns her back on you.
C. But the word “spring” is not just a season.
D. Spring fever used to refer to an actual illness.
E. Then your roommate is moving out tomorrow.
F. That night you spring a trap with some cheese in it.
G. And anyway, she does something that really annoys you.
第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节，满分45分)
第一节 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡该项涂黑。
It was an extraordinary night. The noisyMexico City gradually 41 . The main stadiumof the Olympic track and field competition wascovered in the 42 .
Having finished making the scenes of themarathon winners 43 the prizes, Greenspan,the world famous news documentary producer was about toleave for the hotel for a rest44 he suddenly noticed a bandaged marathon athlete45 the stadium. This man ran completely out of 46 , but he didn’t stop. Having run along therunway for a circle with 47and reached the goal, he fell down on the ground.
Out of curiosity, Greenspan went 48 to ask why the athlete 49 on running to the goal. The young man replied, “That mycountry sent me here 50 more than 20 000kilometers away is not to let me only get off the 51line, but to make me 52 the game. I’ve a (n)53 goal like them: I’llrun to the goal.54 the audience won’t cheer me any more,mymotherland is watching me 55 from behind.” Tears poured from Greenspan’s eyes. Soon he spread the most 56 scene in the history of theOlympic Games to every corner of the 57.
Life should have a dream of 58 thepeak, yet we should understand not everybody hasthe ability to do it. The most 59is notwhether we can get to the peak but whether we’ve made the greatest 60 —to reach thegoal in the mind is a success.
41.A. recovered B. developed C. calmed down D. fell behind
42. A. wind B. shade C. coldness D. darkness
43. A. receiving B. donating C. offering D. sending
44. A. before B. when C. until D. since
45. A. leave B. run into C. approach D. walk through
46. A. place B. sight C. breath D. control
47. A. care B. tension C. pleasure D. difficulty
48. A. over B. back C. off D. in
49.A. focused B. insisted C. depended D. concentrated
50. A. for B. with C. from D. about
51.A. starting B. finishing C. straight D. parallel
52.A. conquer B. complete C. play D. observe
53. A. stable B. innocent C. sacred D. crazy
54. A. As long as B. As soon as C. Because D. Though
55.A. wildly B. curiously C. excitedly D. devotedly
56.A. surprising B. touching C. enjoyable D. imaginable
57.A. world B. stadium C. country D. runway
58. A. seizing B. climbing C. reaching D. exploring
59. A. obvious B. impressive C. remarkable D. important
60. A. efforts B. gains C. measures D. contributions
第II卷
注意事项：
第二卷2页，须用黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上书写作答。如在试题卷上作答，答案无效。
第三部分英语知识运用(共两节，满分45分)
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。将答案填写在答题卡的相应位置。
Most Americans think of New Year as a single day on January 1st. However, Chinese-Americans and people from other cultures that use 61 (difference) calendars each have another celebration as well. A good example of this is the Chinese New Year celebration in San Francisco, 62 is similar in style to what we do in Shanghai.
The 63 famous part of Chinese New Year in San Francisco is the parade, which is watched by over three million people every year. The parade 64 (march)through downtown and Chinatown with over a hundred entries taking part. 65 the course of the parade, cheering from the crowd is mixed with drums and music as local community 66(group) wave banners, flags, and carry lanterns. Chinese themed floats will “float” by, including 67 long Golden Dragon float that takes one hundred people to operate. Local kung fu schools will perform lion dances when firecrackers explode around 68(they) feet.
For many Americans,69(celebrate) their ancestral culture is as important as American culture, and they celebrate both. If you have a chance 70(visit) the United States, you may have the chance to see some of the celebrations yourself.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。
Dear Ben,
As graduation is draw near, I’d like to express my sincere gratitude to you for your kind.
In the last three years, you hadshared my joys and sorrows, making my school life unforgettable. I remember very much that you sent me to hospital when I had my left leg break. During the days when I had to stay in the bed, you comforted me and helped me my lessons. It is your friendship which fills my life with sunshine. I hope my friendship will last forever and I also hope all your dreams will come truly in the future.
Best wishes,
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是李华。一年一度农历(lunar calendar)八月十五中秋节(the Mid-Autumn Festival)即将来临，你打算邀请你的美国朋友Mark到你家做客。请你给Mark写一封邀请信，并告知中秋节的习俗。
注意：1. 词数100左右;
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯;
17年成人高考英语试题答案
第一部分：
1-5 CABCA 6-10ABACA 11-15 BCBAB 16-20 BAABC
第二部分：
第一节：
21-24 CBAC 25-27 DCA 28-31 BDDA 32-35 ABBD
第二节：
36-40 DCFEG
第三部分：
第一节：
41-45 CDABB 46-50 CDABC 51-55 ABCDD 56-60 BACDA
第二节：
61. different 62. which 63. most 64. marches 65. In
66. groups 67.a 68. their 69. celebrating 70. to visit
评分原则
语法填空题如出现可接受的答案，可由评卷点裁定, 酌情给分。
第四部分：
第一节：
Dear Ben,
As graduation is draw near, I’d like to express my sincere gratitude to you for your kind.
drawing kindness
In the last three years, you hadshared my joys and sorrows, making my school life unforgettable. I remember
have
very much that you sent me to hospital when I had my left leg break. During the days when I had to stay in the
well broken
bed, you comforted me and helped me ∧my lessons. It is your friendship which fills my life with sunshine. I
with that
hope my friendship will last forever and I also hope all your dreams will come truly in the future.
our true
Best wishes,
Yours,
Li Hua
评分原则
短文改错题如出现可接受的答案，可由评卷点裁定, 酌情给分。
第二节：
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.词数少于80和多于120的，从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点
1.发出邀请;
2.中秋节的时间;
3.家人团聚、共进晚餐;
4.餐后赏月、吃月饼。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—覆盖所有内容要点。
—应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
—语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。
—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
(21~25分)
第四档完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
(16~20分)
第三档基本完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
(11~15分)
第二档未适当完成试题规定的任务。
—漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
—语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
—较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
(6~10分)
第一档未完成试题规定的任务。
—明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
—语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
—较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
(1~5分)
0分未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
四、One Possible Version
Dear Mark,
The Mid-Autumn Festival is approaching. I’d like to invite you to celebrate it with my family because I think it’s a good opportunity for you to experience Chinese traditional culture.
The Mid-Autumn Festival falls on the 15th day of the 8th month in Chinese lunar calendar. On that day the moon is full, which symbols the union of a family. Therefore, wherever we are or however busy we are, we’ll come home to join our family and have dinner together. After dinner, we sit together, enjoying the moon while eating mooncakes, which is round, just like the moon. I’m sure you’ll have a wonderful time.
Looking forward to your reply.
Yours,
Li Hua
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