全国Ⅰ卷2022年高考英语试题(含参考答案)
英语是学习最广泛的第二语言，是近60个主权国家的官方语言或官方语言之一。与英语为母语的人相比，将其作为第二语言学习的人更多。以下是小编整理的全国Ⅰ卷2022年高考英语试题(含参考答案)，希望可以提供给大家进行参考和借鉴。
全国Ⅰ卷2022年高考英语试题
2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试
英语
本试卷共 10页，满分 120分。考试用时 120分钟。
注意事项：1.答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、
考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用 2B铅笔将试卷
类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡
右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力，选择题从第二部
分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。
2.作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B铅笔把答题卡上对
应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑;如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，
再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。
3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在
答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如需改动，先划掉原
来的答案，然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液。
不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一
并交回。
第二部分阅读(共两节，满分 50分)
第一节(共 15小题;每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature
Grading Scale
90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.
Essays (60%)
Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade
for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 =
20%.
Group Assignments (30%)
Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during
the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date
through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.
Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)
Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to
complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned
readings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion, so it is
important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time
I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be
completed at home, both of which will be graded.
Late Work
An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for
each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due
date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will
get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be
accepted.
21. Where is this text probably taken from?
A. A textbook.
B. An exam paper.
D. An academic article.
C. A course plan.
22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?
A. You will receive a zero.
C. You will be given a test.
B. You will lose a letter grade.
D. You will have to rewrite it.
B
Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The
arugula (芝麻菜 ) was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast
chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a
dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the
arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I
could have made six salads with what I threw out.
In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “food waste
goes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’s
cover story. It’s jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away
— from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vegetables rejected by grocers to large
amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.
Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other
resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem.
In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the third
largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”
If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at the
back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time —
but for him, it’s more like 12 boxes of donated strawberries nearing their
last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which
recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more
than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished
(有瑕疵的) produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the
strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in
meals down the road.
Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don’t think. “Everyone
can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food
than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not
include the side dish you won’t eat.” Curtin says.
24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?
A. We pay little attention to food waste.
B. We waste food unintentionally at times.
C. We waste more vegetables than meat.
D. We have good reasons for wasting food.
25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?
A. Moral decline.
B. Environmental harm.
C. Energy shortage.
D. Worldwide starvation.
26. What does Curtin’s company do?
A. It produces kitchen equipment.
B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.
C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.
D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.
27. What does Curtin suggest people do?
A. Buy only what is needed.
B. Reduce food consumption.
C. Go shopping once a week.
D. Eat in restaurants less often.
C
The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given
hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.
The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce
loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to
help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care
homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in
use.
Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She
said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their
breakfast each morning before I went to school.
“I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning
letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.
“It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their
children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them.
I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something
useful.”
There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in
the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out
countrywide.
Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first
to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the
project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and
fun the project can bring to people here.”
Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be
taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a
shared interest and creative activities.”
28. What is the purpose of the project?
A. To ensure harmony in care homes.
B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.
C. To raise money for medical research.
D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.
29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?
A. She has learned new life skills.
B. She has gained a sense of achievement.
C. She has recovered her memory.
D. She has developed a strong personality.
30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?
A. Improve.
B. Oppose.
C. Begin.
D. Evaluate.
31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?
A. It is well received.
B. It needs to be more creative.
D. It takes ages to see the results.
C. It is highly profitable.
D
Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the
common “m” and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern African languages.
But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking,
five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new
speech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.
More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech
sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in the
languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by
Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and
why this trend arose.
They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human
adults were aligned (对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which
are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws
changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such
sounds.
The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the
development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to
chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and so
didn’t grow to be so large.
Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global
change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use
of “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years.
These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer
people today.
This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds
were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. “The
set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the
appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds
that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like
biological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran, a member of
the research team.
32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi’s research
focus on?
A. Its variety.
B. Its distribution.
D. Its development.
C. Its quantity.
33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?
A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.
B. They could not open and close their lips easily.
C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.
D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.
34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?
A. Supporting evidence for the research results.
B. Potential application of the research findings.
C. A further explanation of the research methods.
D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.
35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?
A. It is key to effective communication.
B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.
C. It is a complex and dynamic system.
D. It drives the evolution of human beings.
第二节(共 5小题;每小题 2.5分，满分 12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选
项中有两项为多余选项。
Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank
Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you
know someone is waiting for you at the gym,” while another read: “ 36 ”
With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a
subtle (微妙) competition.
So, how do you find a workout partner?
First of all, decide what you want from that person.
37
Or do you
just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility?
Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.
You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media,
but it probably won’t result in a useful response. If you plan on
38
working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.
My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her
notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a
week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age.
It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone
number.
39
You and your partner will probably have different skills.
40
Over
time, both of you will benefit — your partner will be able to lift more
weights and you will become more physically fit. The core (核心) of your
relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.
A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.
B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.
C. You’ll work harder if you train with someone else.
D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?
E. How can you write a good “seeking training partner” notice?
F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.
G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.
第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分 30分)
第一节(共 15小题;每小题 1分，满分 15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入
空白处的最佳选项。
My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping
experiences over the past ten years.
Some of our
41
are funny, especially from the early years when
along Chalk Creek. I was
our children were little. Once, we
42
43
that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek (小溪). I tied a rope
around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes.
He was
44 , and his crying let the whole campground know it. So
45
tying him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It
in the creek. My three-year-old, however, did.
46
— he didn’t end up
Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear
when we 47 , but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one
our peaceful morning trip. The picked up and
thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to the motor. Nothing.
He tried again. No 51 . We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a
dead motor. As we all sat there 52 , a fisherman pulled up, threw us a
quickly
48
49
50
rope and towed (拖) us back. We were 53 . Now, every year when my
husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a sense of
54 , wondering what camping fun and
55
we will experience next.
41. A. ideas
B. jokes
C. memories
C. walked
D. discoveries
D. cycled
42. A. camped
43. A. annoyed
44. A. unhurt
45. A. due to
46. A. worked
B. drove
B. surprised
B. unfortunate
B. instead of
B. happened
C. disappointed
C. uncomfortable
C. apart from
C. mattered
D. worried
D. unafraid
D. as for
D. changed
D. headed off
D. recorded
D. speed
47. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out
48. A. arranged B. interrupted
C. completed
C. temperature
C. start
49. A. wind
50. A. find
51. A. luck
B. noise
B. hide
D. fix
B. answer
C. wonder
C. doubtfully
C. safe
D. signal
52. A. patiently B. tirelessly
D. helplessly
D. right
53. A. sorry
54. A. relief
55. A. failure
B. brave
B. duty
C. pride
D. excitement
D. conflict
B. adventure
C. performance
第二节(共 10小题;每小题 1.5分，满分 15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant
Panda National Park (GPNP).
size of Yellowstone National Park, the GPNP will be one of the first
national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a
significant number of areas that (be) previously unprotected,
bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one
56
(cover) an area about three times
57
58
authority
59
(increase) effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in
management
After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next
year. The GPNP (design) to reflect the guiding principle of
“protecting the authenticity and integrity (完整性) of natural ecosystems,
preserving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones,
leaving behind precious natural assets (资产) for future generations”. The
GPNP’s main goal is to improve connectivity between separate
60
61
62
(population) and homes of giant pandas, and
desired level of population in the wild.
63
(eventual) achieve a
Giant pandas also serve
64
an umbrella species (物种)，bringing
protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and
northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger
protection for all the species
65
live within the Giant Panda Range and
significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.
第四部分写作(共两节，满分 40分)
第一节(满分 15分)
假定你是校广播站英语节目 “Talk and Talk”的负责人李华，请给外教
Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括：
1.节目介绍;
2.访谈的时间和话题。
注意：
1.写作词数应为 80左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Caroline,
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节(满分 25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇
完整的短文。
It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different
primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and
walking the route (路线) through thick evergreen forest.
I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself
off to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy
smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn’t with the
other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.
What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event!
I quickly searched the crowd for the school’s coach and asked him what
had happened. “I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at
him,” he explained uncomfortably. “I gave him the choice to run or not, and
let him decide.”
I bit back my frustration (懊恼 ). I knew the coach meant well — he
thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could
run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body
rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.
David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running
like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular
kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were
doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had
decided to join the cross-country team. It just took him longer — that’s all.
David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his
run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education
teacher at the school, I was familiar with the challenges David faced and was
proud of his strong determination.
注意：
1.续写词数应为 150左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me.
I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.
全国Ⅰ卷2022年高考英语试题参考答案
第二部分阅读
21. C
26. D
31. A
36. C
22. B
27. A
32. D
37. D
23. A
28. D
33. C
38. B
24. B
29.B
25. B
30. C
35. C
40. F
34. A
39. G
第三部分语言运用
41. C 42. A
46. A 47. D
51. A 52. D
56. Covering
43. D
44. C
45. B
50. C
55. B
48. B
53. C
49. A
54. D
57. the
58. were
59. to increase
60. is designed
61. and
62. populations
63. eventually
64. as 65. that
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